This is not to single anyone out. In fact this board as a group spells a lot better than some I've seen. And I don't want to be the spelling police. If this is helpful to you, great. If you aren't interested, just skip over it. It won't be the end of world. On the other hand, it might cost you money when trying to get a better job or a sponsor.
I'll start with my personal problem. One and won. That makes two, right? Or is it too? Maybe it's to. Or if there are 2 of them it's a tutu. I usually catch myself before I hit submit, but I often type one when I mean won and vice versa.
The most common one I've seen is there, they're and their.
There is a location. ie It's over there.
They're is a contraction of the two words, they and are. If you could just as easily say they are, then they're is appropriate.
Their indicates possession. My brother went to the shop to work on their racecar.
And there is also "thar." This one isn't confused too often as it is almost always used in dialogue, but it's the same thing as there.
Another thing I see a lot is the use of cliche's by people that don't know what they mean. They've heard it said, but they've never read it. One of the best examples I can think of is someone wrote "for all instensive purposes." It sounds ok like that, but it doesn't actually mean anything. There is no saying about intensive purposes. What they meant to say was "all intents and purposes."
If you don't know what something means, say it in a different way or look it up. You can google just about any word or phrase, even spelled wrong to find the meaning.
Originally Posted by Seadog:
I'm not being picky, but it should be cliches not cliche's. The (') indicates ownership and no (') indicates more than one.
Go ahead and be picky. However, in this case I'll defend my use as it's a substitute for an acute accent mark which I don't know how to make on my computer. In the way I was using it, it indicates the two syllable French pronounciation, rather than the possessive use.
---------- Post added at 07:31 PM ---------- Previous post was at 07:29 PM ----------
Originally Posted by Rpracing1:
Lukcy 161...........I thinck thet youve just ben votted thee speelling polise.........Or doo wee ned two doo a pole four that?
Originally Posted by Seadog:
I'm not being picky, but it should be cliches not cliche's. The (') indicates ownership and no (') indicates more than one.
Originally Posted by Lucky161:
Go ahead and be picky. However, in this case I'll defend my use as it's a substitute for an acute accent mark which I don't know how to make on my computer. In the way I was using it, it indicates the two syllable French pronounciation, rather than the possessive use.
---------- Post added at 07:31 PM ---------- Previous post was at 07:29 PM ----------
gud enuff fore mee.
Supposed to look like this...................cliché.
My favorite most common english language midwest screw up......... IDEAL versus IDEA....
"I have a great ideal...lets start another sprint car series...
So who can tell me the proper PLURAL POSSESIVE FORM of the word GOOSE....got in a fight with my wife about that last week after helping the child with homework...
The one that almost always makes me grit my teeth is when someone posts "...would of..." when they intended to say "...would have..." as in, "I would of run less stagger if I knew that the track was going to dry out"....